[Mock Test #5] India Yearbook Chapter 13 to 19: One hundred MCQs for UPSC Prelims General Studies Paper-1

1. Instructions
2. Question 1 to 25
3. Question 26 to 50
4. Question 51 to 75
5. Question 76 to 100
6. Answerkey

Instructions

• this test contains 100 Questions from chapter 13 to 19 of India Yearbook 2015
• by Venkat Sir of Pandit Deendayal Petroleum University (PDPU) UPSC Study centre, Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
• Upcoming test: NCERT Class 12 only (all subjects)
• Previous Tests Available at Mrunal.org/Download

Question 1 to 25

1. Which of the following statements are Correct?

1. The eight core industries combined weight is of 37.90 per cent in the IIP
2. The average headline inflation only measured in terms of Wholesale Price Index

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

2.Match the Following [Issue – Committee]

I.Monetary Trends and Developments	– 1. Rangarajan
II.Poverty ratio in the country	– 2. Chakrabarty
III.Disinvestment	– 3. Urjit Patel
IV.Capital Infusion for Improving CRAR	– 4. Tendulkar

Answer choices

code	I	II	III	IV
A.	1	2	3	4
B.	3	4	2	1
C.	3	4	1	2
D.	1	2	4	3

3.India’s foreign exchange reserves comprise

1. Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs)
2. Gold
3. SDRs and Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) in the IMF
4. All the above

4.In India’s external debt stock, the highest is

1. US dollar denominated
2. Indian Rupee denominated
3. SDR denominated
4. Japanese Yen and Euro denominated

5.Which of the following statements are CORRECT?

1. India’s share of global trade has increased gradually over the period of time
2. India’s share in global export and imports of commercial services increased over the period of time
3. India’s external debt indicates dominance of short-term borrowings

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 1 & 2 Only
3. 1 & 3
4. 3 Only

6.The share of SCs, STs and women in Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act – MGNREA – in employment generated

Answer choices

1. 23 per cent, 17 per cent and 53 per cent respectively
2. 17 per cent, 23 per cent and 53 per cent respectively
3. 23 per cent, 17 per cent and 40 per cent respectively
4. None

7. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. India is a member of all the institutions of the World Bank Group
2. India has been accessing funds from the World Bank mainly through IBRD and IDA

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

8.Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. Controller General of Accounts (CGA) is the principal accounts adviser to the Government of India and is responsible for establishing and maintaining a technically sound management accounting system
2. VAT has been introduced by all the States/UTs

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

9.Regarding Direct Tax which of the following statements is CORRECT

1. The share of direct taxes exceeded the share of indirect taxes in the tax revenue of the government
2. The share of direct taxes not exceeded the share of indirect taxes in the tax revenue of the government
3. Direct tax is equal in collection to indirect tax
4. Central Board of Direct Taxes consists of 6 members including Chairman

10.The capital infusion by the Government in Public Sector Banks (PSBs) is done with objectives of

1. Adequately meeting the credit requirement of the productive sector of economy
2. To maintain regulatory capital adequacy ratios in PSBs under Basel-III

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

11.Bharatiya Mahila Bank Limited (2013) is for

1. Financial inclusion
2. Promote asset ownership by women
3. Economic empowerment of women

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 & 3

12.Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. Regional Rural Banks’ shareholding structure is 50 per cent (Central Govt.), 15 per cent (State Govt.) and 35 per cent (Sponsor Banks)
2. Export Import Bank of India provides Lines of Credit (LOCs) to foreign countries guaranteed by the concerned countries central bank

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

13. The National Pension System (NPS): Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

1. Mandatory for all new recruits without any exception with effect from 2004
2. It has also been rolled out for all citizens with effect from 1st May, 2009 on a voluntary basis
3. Provides various investment options and choices to individuals to switch over from one option to another or from one fund manager to another
4. Not all state governments have notified NPS for their employees

14.Swavalamban Scheme: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

1. To fulfil old age income security needs and is for unorganised sector
2. It is a co-contributory pension scheme for unorganised sector and operates only through RRBs and PSBs
3. It is a co-contributory pension scheme and operates through RRBs, PSBs, NBFCs and some state governments

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 1 & 3 Only
3. 3 only
4. 1 & 2 Only

15. National Re-Insurer

1. Life Insurance Corporation
2. General Insurance Corporation of India Limited
3. New India Assurance Company of India Limited
4. National Insurance Company Limited

16.Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) operates through Joint Venture (JV) Companies in overseas Insurance Market. Which is NOT one?

1. Bahrain
2. Kenya
3. Nepal & Sri Lanka
4. Mauritius

17.Find wrong match [Years – Disinvestment Mode]

1. 1999-2000 – sale of minority shareholding in small lots
2. 1999-2000 to 2003-04 – strategic sale & sale of small portions of equity
3. After 2004-2005 – sale of small portions of equity
4. None

18.National Investment Fund will be credited into from 2013-14 to

1. Public Account
2. Consolidated Fund of India
3. Both A & B
4. Contingency Fund of India

19.IRDA (1999) – Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority its core functions include

1. Licensing of insurers
2. Regulatory supervision
3. Regulation of premium rates
4. Promotion of role of insurance intermediaries

Which are Correct?

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
3. 1, 2 & 4 only
4. All the above

20.Corporate Affairs Ministry’s new initiatives include

1. Comprehensive revision of the Companies Act, 1956
2. Introduction of a new legal framework on the Limited Liability Partnership
3. Amendments to the Acts governing the three professional Institutes of Chartered Accountants, Cost and Works Accounts and the Company Secretaries
4. Amendment to the Competition Act, 2002

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
3. 1, 2 & 4 only
4. All the above

21.National Foundation for Corporate Governance – Which is INCORRECT?

Answer choices

1. A not – for – profit trust & Three-tier structure
2. To sensitize good governance
3. To facilitate exchange of ideas between corporate leaders and law enforcing agencies
4. None

22. Serious Fraud Investigation Office SFIO– Which is INCORRECT?

1. Set up to investigate corporate frauds of serious and complex nature in 2003
2. At present there is no special Act governing the functioning and jurisdiction of SFIO
3. Files prosecution solely for the violations of the provisions of the Companies Act
4. The SFIO derives powers and functions under the Companies Act 1956

Answer choices

1. 2 Only
2. 3 Only
3. 2 & 4 Only
4. 1 & 3 only

23. Which are Correct?

1. The Competition Appellate Tribunal was set up in 2009
2. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) would comprise a chairperson and minimum two to maximum six members

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

24. Serious Fraud Investigation Office SFIO investigates

1. Project financing frauds
2. Fraud through capital market
3. Siphoning off funds invested by public
4. Swapping equity shares of the company against preference shares of associate companies at exorbitant premium

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 3 Only
3. 1, 2 & 3 Only
4. All the above

25.A: The Competition Act 2002, was enacted paving way for the establishment of the competition commission of India (CCI), an essential ingredient of a liberalized economy

R: From 1991, the institutional framework to support healthy and fair competition in markets had become important in India

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

Question 26 to 50

26. National Food Security Act, 2013 – Which is NOT correct?

1. Provides subsidized food grains under TPDS
2. Special focus on the nutritional support to women & children
3. Coverage of up to 100% of the rural population and up to 75% of the urban population
4. None of the above

27. Mid-Day Meal Scheme presently covers students of

1. Class I-VIII of Government-aided schools
2. Education Guarantee Scheme/ Alternative and Innovative Education Centres (EGS/AIE)

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None of the above

28. Which is NOT matched?

A.	Wheat Based Nutrition Programme	-Children below 6 years of age and expectant/lactating women
B.	Annapurna Scheme	– Senior citizens of 65 years of age or above
C.	Emergency Feeding Programme (EFP)	– State of Bihar
D.	Village Grain Bank Scheme (VGB)	– became redundant and discontinued

29. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. Indian Sugar Industry has impacts on rural livelihood of about 50 million sugarcane farmers and around 5 lakh workers of sugar mills
2. India the largest producer and second largest consumer of sugar in the world
3. Sugar production in the country has been cyclic in nature and appears that the amplitude of year to year fluctuations in sugar production has diminished

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 1 &3 Only
4. All of the above

30. The enforcement/implementation of the provisions of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 lies with the

1. State Governments & UT Administrations
2. Union Government
3. Both A & B
4. State Governments & Union Government

31. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. The Consumer Protection Act – 1986 was enacted to better protect the interests of consumers by establishing a four -tier quasi-judicial consumer dispute redressal machinery, popularly called Consumer Fora at the national, state, district and block levels for settlement of consumer disputes
2. Consumer Welfare Fund created in 1992, protect the welfare of the consumer, create consumer awareness and strengthen consumer movement in the country, particularly in rural areas
3. Organisation engaged in customer welfare activities for a period of three years and registered under the Companies Act, 1956 are eligible for seeking financial assistance from the Consumer Welfare Fund

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 1 & 2 Only
4. All of the above

32. The Customer Protection Act, 1986 applies to all goods and services unless specifically exempted by the

Answer choices

1. Central Government
2. State Governments
3. Central and State Governments
4. Central or State Governments

33. Which of the following statements are CORRECT?

1. Consumer Cooperatives have been playing a role in the distribution of essential consumer items at fair prices only in the slum clusters in the cities
2. Consumer Cooperatives have a four tire structure comprising primary stores, wholesale/central stores, State Consumer Cooperative Federations and the National Consumer Cooperative Federation

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None of the above

34. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

1. India is a not yet a member of International Organization of Legal Metrology
2. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is yet to become a statutory organization
3. In India hallmarking of gold jewellery started but hallmarking of silver Jewellery / artifacts are yet to be started
4. None of the above

35.Which is/are matched?

1. National Test House – established in 1912
2. Indian Grape Processing Board – Pune
3. Legal Metrology Act – 2009

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 1 & 2 Only
4. All of the above

36. The per cent decline of Maternal Mortality Rate in Global and India levels are respectively

1. Globally 47 per cent & India 70 per cent
2. Globally 74 per cent & India 07 per cent
3. Globally 70 per cent & India 47 per cent
4. Globally 35 per cent & India 24 per cent

37. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

1. India is the largest consumer and ahead of China in the tobacco products consumption in the world
2. There is a shortage of manpower in mental health programme in India
3. Hearing loss is the most common sensory deficit in human today and India is one of the affected countries.

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 1 & 2 Only
3. 2 & 3 Only
4. All of the above

38. Match the following

1.	National Institute of Virology	a– Wayanad
2.	National Institute of Epidemiology	b– Pune
3.	National Institute of Nutrition (NIM-ICMR)	c– Hyderabad
4.	Institute for Research in Ageing	d– Chennai
5.	Genome Valley	e- Hyderabad

code	a	b	c	d
A	4	1	2	3
B	4	1	3	2
C	1	2	3	4
D	5	4	3	2

39. India has been declared polio free from

1. 2014
2. 2013
3. 2012
4. 2011

40. Sowa Rigpa

1. It is the recent addition to the existing family of AYUSH system
2. It has been popularly practice in Tibet, Magnolia, Bhutan and Himalayan regions of India
3. It is Known as Amchi system of medicine is one of the oldest, living and well documented medical tradition of the world
4. The majority of theory and practice of Sowa-Rigpa is similar to YOGA

Which are CORRECT?

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2, 3 & 4 Only
3. 1, 2 & 3 Only
4. All of the above

41. Drugs covered under the purview of Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940

1. Ayurveda & Siddha
2. Siddha Only
3. Unani and Homoeopathy
4. All the above

42. National Institute – System of Medicine: Which is/are MATCHED?

1.	National Institute of Ayurveda	– Kolkata
2.	Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga	– New Delhi
3.	National Institute of Unani Medicine	– Bangalore
4.	National Institute of Siddha	– Jaipur
5.	National Institute of Homoeopathy	– Chennai

Answer choices

1. 1 only
2. 2 & 3 only
3. 4 only
4. 5 only

43. In the National Aids Control Programme the focus of the subsequent phases shifted

1. From raising HIV / AIDS awareness to behaviour change
2. From a more decentralised response to a national response
3. Increasing involvement of NGOs and network of People Living with HIV (PLHIV)

Which is/ are CORRECT?

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 & 3 only
4. 2 & 3 only

44. India is a signatory to Self-Sufficiency in Safe Blood and Blood Products based on voluntary non-remunerated donation. This international declaration is called

Answer choices

1. Rome Declaration
2. Declaration of Helsinki
3. Declaration of Geneva
4. None of the Above

45. The drug for prevention of mother to child transmission of HIV infection

1. Dapsone
2. Nevirapine
3. Rifampicin
4. Griseofulvin

46. Consider the following policies/schemes : Which is the first and most recent respectively

1. National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy (NUHHP)
2. National Policy on Urban Street Vendors (NPUSV)
3. National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM)
4. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURAM)

Answer choices

1. 1 & 4
2. 4 & 3
3. 2 & 3
4. 3 & 4

47. HUDCO’s borrowers include

1. State government agencies & Private sector
2. Individual borrowers belonging to all sections of the society in urban and rural areas
3. Private sector
4. A & B

48. Prime Minister’s first visit abroad after assuming office in 2014 is

1. Bangladesh
2. Bhutan
3. Srilanka
4. Nepal

49. India’s commitment to resolve outstanding issues within the framework of the Shimla Agreement of 1972 is with

1. Pakistan
2. Bangladesh
3. China
4. Nepal

50. ASSERTION: In recent years, there has been a significant transformation in India’s relations with the countries in South East Asia and Pacific region

REASON: There is continuing geopolitical shift towards Asia and steady trend of economic growth and stability in the South East Asia and Pacific region

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

Question 51 to 75

51. ASEAN-India strategic partnership signed in

1. 2011
2. 2012
3. 2013
4. 2014

52. India extended an offer of assistance in the preservation and restoration of cultural heritage sites in South East Asia. Which is an odd one?

1. Siem Reap
2. Wat Phu
3. My Son
4. Lugansk

53. Which is NOT a part of Caucasus Region?

1. Armenia
2. Ukraine
3. Azerbaijan
4. Georgia

54. Out of India’s top five oil sourcing countries four were from the Gulf region. Identify these countries

1. Saudi Arabia, Iran, Kuwait and UAE
2. Iran, Iraq, Kuwait and UAE
3. Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Kuwait and UAE
4. Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Iran and UAE

55. International Issue – India’s stand: Which is NOT matched?

1.	Middle-East Peace Process	– Palestine side by side with Israel
2.	Egypt	– Policy of non-interference
3.	Syria	– Opposition to a military solution
4.	Libya	– Militia warfare grave concern to us

Answer choices

1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 & 3 only
4. None of the above

56. Which is/are INCORRECT?

1. The sovereign debt crisis in the Europe has deeply affected the European Union’s share of trade with India
2. There is a recommendation that SAARC summit be held once every three years instead of the current practice of holding it bi-annually

Answer choices

1. All the above
2. 1 only
3. 2 only
4. None of the above

57. Madrid Protocol is for

1. Consular relations
2. On trademarks
3. Substances that deplete the Ozone layer
4. Human Rights

58. SAARC Least Developed Countries – Which is the right combination?

1. Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Bhutan only
2. Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Nepal only
3. Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Nepal only
4. Afghanistan and Nepal only

59. TAPI pipeline project: TAPI stands for

1. Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and India
2. Turkey, Afghanistan, Pakistan and India
3. Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and India
4. Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran

60. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. Top 3 states in terms of number of passport application were from Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra
2. The largest number of Indian expatriates is working in the Saudi Arabia
3. Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar and Kerala are the leading states in the order of the number of emigrated from India

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 1 & 3 only
3. 2 & 3 only
4. 1, 2 & 3

61. Match the following (organization – Function)

1.	Indian Council for Cultural Relations	a– Autonomous think tank
2.	Indian Council of World Affairs	b– To research and study international issues
3.	Research and Information System for Developing Countries	c– Flicker
4.	External Publicity and Public Diplomacy	d– Welfare of international students in India

Answer choices

code	a	b	c	d
A	4	1	2	3
B	3	2	1	4
C	1	2	3	4
D	3	2	4	1

62. Citizens of which country has committed for part of financial support to Nalanda University

1. Singapore
2. China
3. Australia
4. Thailand

63. Prime Minister of Bhutan

1. Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck
2. Jigme Zangpo
3. Lyonchhen Tshering Tobgay
4. Ugyen Wangchuck

64. Arrange the regions on the basis of Indian migrants

1. Gulf > USA > South Asian
2. Gulf > South Asian > USA
3. South Asian > USA > Gulf
4. South Asian> Gulf > USA

65. Pravasi Bhartiya Samman Award – it is conferred by the

1. President of India
2. Vice – President of India
3. Prime Minister of India
4. Minister for External Affairs of India

66. The comprehensive Social Security Agreements provide: Which is INCORRECT?

1. Exemption from payment of social security contribution for detached worker provided that the worker is covered under the Indian social security system
2. Exportability of benefits in case of relocation of India or any other country after having made social security contribution
3. Totalization of the periods of contribution pertaining to both countries for pensionary benefits
4. None of the above

67. Indian Community Welfare Fund is aimed at

1. Extending emergency medical care to the overseas Indians in need
2. Providing initial legal assistance to the overseas Indians in deserving cases
3. Providing the payment of penalties in respect of Indian nationals for illegal stay in the host country in deserving cases
4. Providing the payment of small fines / penalties for the release of Indian nationals in jail / detention centre in deserving cases

Which is CORRECT?

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 1, 2 & 3 only
3. 1, 2 & 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

68. Overseas Indian Facilitation Centre (OIFC) established as Public Private Partnership for

1. To promote overseas Indian investments in India
2. To establish Diaspora Knowledge Network
3. To assist Indian states to project investment opportunities
4. Provide advisory services to PIO, OCIs and NRIs

Which is CORRECT?

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 1, 2 & 3 only
3. 1, 2 & 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

69. An Emigration Check Not Require (ECNR) passport holder does not need any emigration clearance for going to any country. Any person is entitled to ECNR passport

Answer choices

1. Who has passed class VIII
2. Who has passed class X or more
3. Who has passed class XII or more
4. Graduate

70. Which is CORRECT?

1. Protector General of Emigrants is the statutory authority responsible for the welfare and protection of emigrant workers
2. India has the biggest diaspora in the world
3. Registration of Recruiting Agents is taking place under Emigration Act, 1983

Answer choices

1. 1 & 3 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1, 2 & 3
4. None of the above

71. Nitaqat programme is meant to regularise foreign workers and makes it mandatory for local companies to hire one own national for every 10 migrant workers. Which country implemented this?

1. Malaysia
2. Saudi Arabia
3. Indonesia
4. Kuwait

72. Sector reserved for public sector in India

1. Atomic Energy
2. Railway Operations
3. Both A & B
4. All the sectors are open for private participation/FDI

73. Which is NOT Correct?

1. The index of industrial production (IIP) is a measure of industrial performance compiled and released every month by Central Statistic Office (CSO)
2. IIP is a fixed weight and fixed base index
3. IIP comprises three components of industries, viz., mining, manufacturing and electricity
4. None

74. National Manufacturing Policy: 2011(Now part of Make in India) – Which is NOT Correct?

1. The objective of enhancing the share of manufacturing in GDP to 45 percent
2. Creating 100 million jobs over a decade
3. The policy is based on principle of industrial growth in partnership with states
4. None

75. Match [Project-Help/aid/cooperation] – Which is NOT Correct?

A.	Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor	-Japan
B.	Chennai-Bengaluru Industrial Corridor	-Japan
C.	Bengaluru-Mubai Industrial Corridor (BEMC)	– Japan
D.	East Coast Economic Corridor (ECEC) Project	-Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Question 76 to 100

76. Initiatives in FDI policy-Which is NOT Correct?

1. Consolidation of FDI Policy through circular 1 of 2010
2. Rationalisation and liberalization of FDI policy and railway infrastructure recently approved up to 100 percent
3. FDI policy changes in last three years including FDI from Pakistan as permitted
4. None

77. Intellectual Property Rights is concerning patents, marks, designs and geographical indications. Which is NOT matched? [IPR Issue – Office]

A.	The Patents Act 1970 Head Office	– Kolkata
B.	The Designs Act 2000 Head Office	– Kolkata
C.	The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act 1999 Registry	– Mumbai
D.	The Trade Mark Act 1999 Registry	– Mumbai

78. Intellectual Property Appellate Board headquarter is in:

1. Chennai
2. Kolkata
3. Mumbai
4. Delhi

79. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. India is world’s 2^nd largest cement manufacturer after China.
2. India is world’s 3^rd largest tile manufacturer after China and Brazil
3. Three Indian Companies are in the list of top 25 Global Tyre Companies
4. India is world’s 2^nd largest salt producer after China.

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
3. 3 & 4
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

80. Indian foundry industry is the fifth largest in the world. [Location – Specialisation]

1.	Coimbatore cluster	– Machinery parts and agricultural implements
2.	Kolhapur and Belgaum cluster	– Diesel engine castings
3.	Rajkot cluster	AB- Automotive castings
4.	Batala and Jalandhar cluster	– Pump sets castings

Which is/are CORRECTLY matched?

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
3. 3 & 4
4. None of the above

81. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. Sophisticated instruments are not currently manufactured in the country
2. Nearly half of the newsprint demand in the country is met by imports
3. India continues to be second largest provider of silk in the world

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. All the above
4. None of the above

82. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. India is the second largest bicycle producer of the world, next only to China.
2. Most of the bicycle manufacturing units are located in Punjab and Tamil Nadu
3. Jalandhar being a major bicycle production hub

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 1 & 2 Only
3. 1 & 3
4. 1, 2 & 3

83. Cyclone and multi- cyclones

1. Air pollution control equipments
2. Noise pollution control equipments
3. Water pollution control equipments
4. Bio-degrader

84. Which is/are INCORRECT?

1. The textile sector is the second largest provider of employment after agriculture
2. Eastern coastal states are sole producer of raw jute in the country
3. Technical Textiles have a presence in major areas of activity such as aerospace, defence, and medicine/health

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 1 & 2 Only
3. 1 & 3
4. 2 Only

85.Assertion: Mulberry, Tasar, Eri and Muga, silks have shown retreat in production during the recent past

Reason: Drought, un-seasonal rain and cyclone had taken place in the silk production areas

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

86. Which is/are INCORRECT?

1. 95 percent of the world’s hand woven fabric comes from India
2. In Sponge iron, India number one position in the global market

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None of the above

87. Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) have been set up to serve

1. The broad macro-economy objectives of higher economic growth
2. Self-sufficiency in production of goods and services
3. Long term equilibrium in balance of payments and low and stable prices

Answer choices

1. All the above
2. 1 & 2 Only
3. 1 & 3
4. 2 Only

88. The Maharatna CPSEs can invest can in a single project- without Government approval

1. 10, 000 crores
2. Rs. 5000 crores
3. Rs. 1000 crores
4. 500 crores

89. Which is/are INCORRECT?

1. Potash production is the important foreign exchange earner and half of the production is set for exports from India
2. The first manufacturing unit of Single Super Phosphate (SSP) was set up in Ranipet near Chennai in 1906
3. Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited and National Fertilizer Limited are in Trombay and Bathinda respectively

Answer choices

1. All the above
2. 1 & 2 Only
3. 2 & 3
4. 2 Only

90. Fertiliser Corporation of India Limited comprised four units. [Location – State]

1.	Sindri	– Jharkhand
2.	Gorakhpur	– Uttar Pradesh
3.	Ramagundam	– Telangana
4.	Talcher	– Rajasthan

Which is/are INCORRECT?

1. All the above
2. 1 Only
3. 4 only
4. None of the above

91. In India, the product patent regime has come in force from

1. 1995
2. 2000
3. 2005
4. 2010

92. A: HFC [Hydroflourocarbon]–23, a pollutant, is generated as a waste gas during the process of manufacture of HCFC 22

R: Destruction of stored HFC-23 through thermal oxidation process will generate CERs

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

93. DDT (dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane) is the most effective tool to fight dreaded disease/s like

Answer choices

1. Malaria & Dengue
2. Kala Azar
3. Japanese Encephalitis
4. All the above

94. HIL is today the largest producer of DDT in the world and its plant is in Rasayani. In which state this?

Answer choices

1. Uttarkhand
2. Maharashtra
3. Telangana
4. Haryana

95. Which region more prone to malaria?

1. Latin America
2. Sub-Saharan Africa
3. Middle East
4. South Asia

96. India’s Pharmaceutical Sector: Which is/are CORRECT?

1. The country now ranks 14th in terms of volume of production and 10 percent of global share
2. The country now ranks 3rd largest by value in global share

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None of the above

97. Indian Drugs and Pharmaceutical Limited (IDPL) plants: Which is NOT?

1. Rishikesh
2. Hyderabad
3. Gurgaon
4. Bangalore

98. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. Ministry of mines responsible in respect of all mines and minerals other then coal, natural gas and petroleum
2. Major deposits of minerals are concentrated in the West coast of Country

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None of the above

99. Match – Which is NOT correct?

1. Bauxite – Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
2. Chromite – Manipur and Karnataka
3. Copper – Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
4. Gold – Maharashtra and Rajasthan

100. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. Hematite and magnetite are the most important iron ores in India
2. In India Eastern sector mines are known for magnetite and Southern sector mines are known for Hematite

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None of the above

Answerkey

Hints for selected questions

[columnize]

• 1.Consumer Price Index
• 3.Long-term
• 7. 4 only ; NOT in The International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
• 8. A& N Islands & Lakshadweep NO
• 12. Guaranteed by Gov of India
• 13. except Armed Forces
• 17. Strategic sale only
• 22. Indian Penal Code also
• 26. 75% Rural & 50 % Urban
• 28. Odisha
• 29. 2nd largest Producer & largest consumer
• 31. 3 tier
• 33. Villages & Hill areas
• 37. 2nd
• 40. Ayurveda
• 43. National to decentralization
• 56. Still EU large partner; annually to bi-annually
• 79. 3rd
• 80. Reverse order
• 82. Ludhiana
• 84. Bihar & Tripura also
• 89. Potash important import

[/columnize]